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Tuesday, March 27, 2012

No-cloning Theorem

In a classical computer there is no problem to copy an arbitrary piece of data. However, in quantum computer this is not the case. This is the consequence of a straightforward observation in linear algebra, called the "No-cloning Theorem". In the formalism of quantum computation, we use a unit vector in a Hilbert space to represent the state of a quantum bit. Operations on quantum bits are represented by unitary operators on the Hilbert space. To represent a system with more than one quantum bit, we use tensor products. Here is the No-cloning Theorem in this formulation.


No-cloning Theorem. Let \mathcal{H} be a vector space (over \mathbb{R} or \mathbb{C}) of dimension larger than 1. There do not exist a linear operator U on \mathcal{H} \otimes \mathcal{H} and a nonzero vector v_0 \in \mathcal{H} such that U(x \otimes v_0) = x \otimes x for all x \in \mathcal{H}.
Proof: Suppose such a U and v_0 exist. Choose a nonzero vector v \in \mathcal{H} such that v, v_0 are linearly independent. Then U(v_0 \otimes v_0) = v_0 \otimes v_0, U(v \otimes v_0) = v \otimes v and U((v + v_0) \otimes v_0) = (v + v_0) \otimes (v + v_0) = v \otimes v + v_0 \otimes v + v \otimes v_0 + v_0 \otimes v_0. But linearity of U demands U((v + v_0) \otimes v_0) = U(v \otimes v_0) + U(v_0 \otimes v_0) = v \otimes v + v_0 \otimes v_0. This is a contradiction.

Additive functions on the real line

A function f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} is said to be additive if f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) for every x, y \in \mathbb{R}. Typical examples of additive functions are the linear ones, i.e. f(x) = ax where a is a real constant. One question is that are they the only possibilities? If we further require that f to be continuous, then the answer is positive. But in general, the answer is no and one can use basic linear algebra to construct counter-examples.

The trick is that we can regard \mathbb{R} as a vector space over \mathbb{Q} (and the dimension is infinite, exercise). Let \beta be a \mathbb{Q}-basis of \mathbb{R} which contains 1. This can be done by a standard application of Zorn's Lemma. Define f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} on \beta as below and extend \mathbb{Q}-linearly. Take f(1) = 1 and f(v) = 0 whenever 1 \neq v \in \beta. By definition, f is \mathbb{Q}-linear, so it is additive. To see that f is not \mathbb{R}-linear, let 0 \neq x \in \mathbb{R} be spanned \mathbb{Q}-linearly by basis vectors in \beta excluding 1. Then f(x) = 0 by construction but xf(1) = x \neq f(x)

The law of a random variable

Let (\Omega, \mathcal{F}, \mathbb{P}) be a probability space and X be a random variable on \Omega. The law (or distribution) of X is the (Borel) probability measure on the real line defined by
\mathbb{P}_X(A) = \mathbb{P}(X \in A)
for every Borel A \subseteq \mathbb{R}.

Conversely, suppose we are given a probability measure \mu on \mathbb{R}. We can build a random variable so that its law is precisely \mu. Take \Omega = [0, 1], \mathcal{F} be the Borel \sigma-algebra and \mathbb{P} be the Lebesgue measure. For each \omega \in \Omega, let
X(\omega) = \inf \{t \in \mathbb{R}: \mu((-\infty, t]) \geq \omega\}.
This defines a random variable X on the probability space (\Omega, \mathcal{F}, \mathbb{P}).

Claim: The law of X is \mu.
Proof: Fix any real number a. We need to show that \mathbb{P}(X \leq a) = \mu((-\infty, a]). Now for every \omega \in \Omega,
 \begin{aligned} &X(\omega) \leq a \\ &\Leftrightarrow \inf \{t \in \mathbb{R}: \mu((-\infty, t]) \geq \omega\} \leq a \\ &\Leftrightarrow \forall n \in \mathbb{N} \inf \{t \in \mathbb{R}: \mu((-\infty, t]) \geq \omega\} < a + \frac{1}{n} \\ &\Leftrightarrow \forall n \in \mathbb{N} \mu((-\infty, a + \frac{1}{n}]) \geq \omega \\ &\Leftrightarrow \mu((-\infty, a]) \geq \omega. \\ \end{aligned}
Hence we have that \mathbb{P}(X \leq a) = \mathbb{P}(\{\omega \in \Omega: \mu((-\infty, a]) \geq \omega\}) = \mathbb{P}([0,  \mu((-\infty, a])]) =  \mu((-\infty, a]). Q.E.D.

Reference:
Bass - Probabilistic Techniques in Analysis